Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need {\i was there} that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?
Is the law then against the promises of God? God forbid: for if there had been a law given which could make alive, verily righteousness would have been of the law.
But now hath he obtained a ministry the more excellent, by so much as he is also the mediator of a better covenant, which hath been enacted upon better promises.