(for they indeed have been made priests without an oath; but he with an oath by him that saith of him,\par\tab {\b The Lord sware and will not repent himself,\par\tab Thou art a priest for ever});
Now if there was perfection through the Levitical priesthood (for under it hath the people received the law), what further need {\i was there} that another priest should arise after the order of Melchizedek, and not be reckoned after the order of Aaron?